Respuesta :
Answer:
a) 10.98%
b) Mean = 19, Standard deviation = 3.4322
c) 97.82%
Explanation:
This can be modeled with a Binomial Distribution with probability p of “success” (selecting a person O+) is 38% (0.38) and the likelihood q of “failure” (selecting a person with blood type other than O+) is 62% (0.62).
As we know, the probability of having exactly k “successes” in a sample of size n is given by
[tex]\large P(k;n)=\binom{n}{k}p^kq^{n-k}[/tex]
where
[tex]\large \binom{n}{k}[/tex] are the combination of n elements taken k at a time
a. What is the probability that exactly 20 have type O+blood?
Since the sample size is 50, we are looking for P(20;50)
[tex]\large P(20;50)=\binom{50}{20}0.38^{20}0.62^{30}=0.1098=10.98\%[/tex]
b. Find the mean and standard deviation for this probability distribution.
The mean for a Binomial distribution in a sample of size n is given by
[tex]\large \bar x=np[/tex]
and the standard deviation is
[tex]\large s=\sqrt{npq}[/tex]
So,
[tex]\large \bar x = 50*0.38=19[/tex]
[tex]\large s=\sqrt{50*0.38*0.62}=3.4322[/tex]
c. If you only select 8 people, what is the probability that at least one has type O+blood?
If we only select 8 people, the sample size is now 8 and we are looking for P(1;8)+P(2;8)+...+P(8;8)
But P is a probability function, so the sum above equals
1 - P(0;8) (1 minus the probability that none of them is O+)
So, the likelihood we are looking for is
[tex]\large 1-P(0;8)=1-\binom{8}{0}0.38^00.62^8=1-0.021834=0.97816\approx 0.9782=97.82\%[/tex]