Answer:
A. No, because the experiment is not performed a fixed number of times.
Step-by-step explanation:
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials(n is fixed), and X can only have two outcomes.
[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}[/tex]
In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]
And [tex]\pi[/tex] is the probability of X happening.
In this problem, we dont have a fixed number of trials. So the correct answer is:
A. No, because the experiment is not performed a fixed number of times.