False, if we take successive discounts 15% off and then 25% off is not same as taking 40% off at a time.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let Cost price = 100/-
[tex]15 \% \text { discount on } \mathrm{Cost price} \text { of } 100=\frac{100 \times 15}{100}[/tex]
[tex]15 \% \text { discount on } \mathrm{Cost price} \text { of } 100=15[/tex]
After 15% discount on 100 Cost price is = 100 – 15 = 85
Again on RS. 85/- there is a discount of 25%
[tex]25 \% \text { discount on } 85=\frac{25 \times 80}{100}[/tex]
[tex]25 \% \text { discount on } 85=21.25[/tex]
After successive discount of 15% off and then 25% off on Cost price = 85 - 21.25 = 63.75
On the other hand
If 40% discount on the Cost price = 100/-
[tex]40 \% \text { discount on } 100=\frac{40 \times 100}{100}[/tex]
[tex]40 \% \text { discount on } 100=40[/tex]
After successive discount of 40% off on Cost price = 100 – 40 = 60
The cost price by taking successive discount of 15% and 25% off is not same as discount of 40%
Therefore this is false.
Answer:
false false false...
Step-by-step explanation:
false is false
