How much higher or lower will net operating income be for the year if the underapplied or overapplied overhead is allocated rather than closed directly to cost of goods sold? (?

Respuesta :

Answer:

Higher by 39,000 dollars

Explanation:

NOTE YOU POSTED THE QUESTION BUT NOT THE PROBLEM INTRODUCTION.

Ludacris Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies to manufacture overhead cost to products on the basis of machine-hours. The predetermined overhead rate was based on a cost formula that estimates $900,000 of total manufacturing overhead for an estimated activity level of 75,000 machine- hours.

During the year, a large quantity of furniture on the market resulted in cutting back production and a buildup of furniture in the company's warehouse. The company's cost records revealed the following actual cost and operating data for the year:

Machine-hours 60,000

Manufacturing overhead cost $ 850,000

Inventories at year-end:

Raw materials $ 30,000

Work in process (includes overhead applied of $36,000) $100,000

Finished goods (includes overhead applied of $180,000) $500,000

Cost of goods sold (includes overhead applied of $504,000) 1,400,000

The company applied overhead for:

36,000 + 180,000 + 504,000 = 720,000

The actual overhead cost where 850,000

Thus, there was 130,000 dollar of underapplied overhead.

We do cross multiply to know the amount it should be allocate to cost COGS

504,000/720,000 x 130,000 = 91,000

This means we should increase COGS by 91,000 if we allcoate the underapplied overhead.

If we directly post into COGS then it will increase by 130,000

The difference of 39,000 dollars will mean a lower COGS thus, a higher operating income as a portion of the underapplied overhead is distribute among inventory and work in process.