Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the function
[tex]\:\:f\left(x\right)=\log \:_2\left(x\right)[/tex]
This function can be written as:
[tex]y=\log _2\left(x\right)[/tex]
As the rule tells s that
[tex]\:y=log_ax\Rightarrow \:a^y=x[/tex]
so
[tex]x=2^y\:\:[/tex]
As we know that the value of x=0 at y-intercept.
[tex]0=2^y\:\:[/tex]
For any value of [tex]y[/tex], this statement is false as there is no power of 2 that is equal to 0.
Also
Lets interchange x and y in the equation [tex]x=2^y\:\:[/tex] to find the inverse of the function.
[tex]y=2^x\:\:[/tex]
So, it doesn't have any x-intercepts as for any value of x, the value of [tex]y[/tex] can not be zero for this function.
Therefore, Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
