Answer:
B. f(x) domain: x ≥ 1
f–1(x) range: y ≥ 1
Step-by-step explanation:
I think your question is missed of key information, allow me to add in and hope it will fit the original one.
Please have a look at the attached photo.
My answer:
Because the two functions are inverse to each other, so we all know that the domain of f(x) will be the range of [tex]f^{-1} (x)[/tex] and the range of f(x) will be the domain of [tex]f^{-1} (x)[/tex]
As can be seen from the attached photo,
f(x) extends to the right of x=1, so its domain is x ≥ 1.
<=> [tex]f^{-1} (x)[/tex] range is y≥ 1.
Therefore, we choose answer B
Hope it will find you well.
