Respuesta :

Answer:

this statement is arguably false.

Explanation:

Many people have exercised close to absolute power who were not corrupt by any definition of that term. Acton himself mentions Queen Elizabeth I as being corrupt because she ordered the execution of Mary, Queen of Scots. But Mary was not entirely blameless and had become the focus of several plots against the English crown. If Elizabeth ordered her execution, as seems likely, to protect the English nation from sedition and civil war, then her action cannot be considered entirely corrupt.

I agree with Lord Acton's assessment of power. There have been instances where absolute power has been wrongly wielded to protect self-interests. Leadership only requires is limited power or authority.

As cited elsewhere, Henry the Eighth sought absolute powers in his marital affairs. When he obtained them, he used the powers to annihilate all his perceived enemies. He murdered most of the wives he had married to forge political alliances and ensure a male successor. He also murdered his best friend, Thomas Beckett.

These two examples show that no individual should be entrusted with absolute powers because they breed corruption in the welder. The Magna Carta was an attempt to curb the excesses of corrupting power. The three branches of government are separate for the same purpose.

Thus, history provides evidence that Lord Acton's assessment of power is right on point.

Read more: absolute power corrupts at brainly.com