Mr. Rafiq owes Mr. Ahmed Rs. 7000 to be due in 5 years and Rs. 15,000 to be due in 7 ½ years. How much should Mr. Rafiq pay at the end of 6 years which may be acceptable to Mr. Ahmed if money is worth 8% compounded semi-annually?

Respuesta :

Answer:

The answer is "$20906.15".

Explanation:

In the next five years, Mr. Rafiq must be due to 7000 Ahmed and in [tex]7 \frac{1}{2}[/tex] years Rs. 15000 must be due.  

Interest r = 8% semi-annually aggregated  

Hence a one-off fee only at end of 6 years is an FV fee at 5 years plus a [tex]7 \frac{1}{2}[/tex]  year payment.  

[tex]\to[/tex]Year 6 single payment[tex]= CF5 \times (1+\frac{r}{2})^{(2 \times 1)} + \frac{CF6}{(1+\frac{r}{2})^{(2\times 1.5)}}[/tex]

[tex]\to[/tex] Payment at year 6 [tex]= 7000 \times {(1+\frac{0.08}{2})}^2 + \frac{15000}{(1+\frac{0.08}{2})^3 }[/tex]

                                   [tex]= \$ \ 20906.15[/tex]