The solution for the questions below is mathematically given as
- induced emf=0
- induced emf=0.0132V
- induced emf=0
What is the emf induced in this coil when it is all inside the field.?
(A)
Generally, the equation for the flux is mathematically given as
[tex]\Phi _{B}=B.A[/tex]
[tex]\Phi _{B}=B.A\\\\\Phi _{B}=B(40*30*10^{-4}) ,[/tex]
So, the magnetic flux through the coil is constant.
From faradays law,
[tex]\varepsilon =-\frac{\mathrm{d} \Phi _{B}}{\mathrm{d} t}[/tex]
---(1) for the induced emf. Since magnetic flux is constant, LHS. of (1) =0
induced emf=0
(B)
Let x be the length of the coil's magnetic field area.
[tex]then, \Phi _{B}=B.A=B(40*x*10^{-4}) \\\\\frac{\mathrm{d}\Phi _{B} }{\mathrm{d} t}=40\\B*10^{-4}*\frac{\mathrm{d} x}{\mathrm{d} t}[/tex]
induced emf=0.0132V
(C)
In conclusion, Therefore, there is no variation in the magnetic flux across the coil when magnetic flux=0.
induced emf=0
Read more about magnetic flux
https://brainly.com/question/24214683
#SPJ1