Jared's assignment is to write a counter-argument to Sewell's claim as written in paragraph 1 of "The Selling of Joseph." He is planning to write in the form of a pamphlet as Sewell did, using the punctuation, capitalization, spelling and semantics that were in common use in 1700. Which statement best explains these differences that can be noted in this excerpt?

A.) The excerpt uses the special rules of English punctuation, capitalization, and spelling that were in use at the time of King James and were therefore common in the KJV Bible.
B.) The excerpt was written by a man who was very knowledgeable about Biblical facts, but was likely bilingual and did not have understanding of correct English usage.
C.) The excerpt contains words that are capitalized because they are used as proper nouns and their emphasis is altered accordingly.
D.) The excerpt uses the conventions of standard English grammar that was in use at the time that the article was written.

A.) The excerpt uses the special rules of English punctuation, capitalization, and spelling that were in use at the time of King James and were therefore common in the KJV Bible.

Answer Link

ferpzgc ferpzgc · Answer 2 · 2019-05-19T20:57:28+02:00

Answer:

The correct answer is D) The excerpt uses the conventions of standard English grammar that was in use at the time that the article was written.

Explanation:

English language has changed a lot from Old English until our current language. Even though it may seem strange or special, the solicited text will comply with the conventions of standard English grammar at the time. One of the most obvious changes will be the use of -th instead of -s when forming 3rd person forms: hath - has.