( WILL BRAINLIEST ) In August 1803, President Jefferson wrote a letter to US attorney general John Breckinridge. In the letter, Jefferson discussed the agreement with France for the Louisiana Purchase. Read this except from the letter:

This treaty [agreement with France] must of course be laid before both Houses [of Congress], because both have important functions to exercise respecting it. They, I presume, will see their duty to their country in ratifying & paying for it, so as to secure a good which would otherwise probably be never again in their power. But I suppose they must then appeal to the nation for an additional article to the Constitution, approving & confirming an act which the nation had not previously authorized. The Constitution has made no provision for our holding foreign territory, still less for incorporating foreign nations into our Union. The executive, in seizing the fugitive occurrence which so much advances the good of their country, have done an act beyond the Constitution. The legislature . . . must ratify and pay for it and throw themselves on their country for doing for them, unauthorized, what we know they would have done for themselves had they been in a situation to do it.

Question:

What does Jefferson say about whether the US Constitution allows for an agreement such as the Louisiana Purchase? How can you tell?